Preaching the Gospel, Preparing a People

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David Metzel

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  • metzeld
    Yes, we have a lot to be thankful for and the technology today is one of those things to include in our thanks. We are glad that you are able to join our worship services. Thank You for writing. David Metzel
  • metzeld
    Thank you for your message about the technical issue you are experiencing. It is always good to understand how the broadcast is received and if there are any technical difficulties. I will pass your message along to the appropriate people in order to work on a solution. Thank you for writing. David Metzel
  • metzeld
    Hi Again Mat, It seems that communication has broken down between us. You either do not understand or accept what I have already said and I certainly do not agree with you regardless of what you said above. It seems that we are talking past each other to no good purpose for either of us, so I think at this point it is best for us to go our separate ways and continue to study God’s Word for further understanding. Also remember, it is not what you know that counts with God, but what you do with what you know. May God bless you in your further study of His Word and as you do His will.
  • metzeld
    Hi Again Mat August 29, 2017 Part 5 You mention the phrase, “You shall have no other God’s before Me”, ….shows that there cannot be two (2) Beings of equal eminence. Actually you missed one of the main points of the sermon and I suggest you listen to it again. The word “God” represents a Family or Kind of Being and it may also refer to individual members of that Family. So there is no problem saying, “You shall have no other Gods before Me”, when you are talking about the God Family as a unit, even though there are two (2) members of that Family at that time.
  • metzeld
    Hi Again Mat August 29, 2017 Part 4 You also mention that people heard the Father’s voice when Christ was baptized. The Bible does not say that. It says that people heard “a voice”. Please refer to an article we have, https://www.ucg.org/world-news-and-prophecy/thy-kingdom-come. You also mention Proverbs 30 again. I have addressed this question in a previous message and I sent you a link where you can find additional information. I hope you check out the link as I think it will be helpful to you
  • metzeld
    Hi Again Mat August 29, 2017 Part 3 You refer to John 5:37 and apply this verse only to the Pharisees who heard His voice. John 5:37 says, You have neither heard His voice at any time, nor seen His form. I think we both agree that Christ was referring to the Father. John 1:18         No one has seen God (the Father) at any time – the Son declared Him John 6:46         Not that anyone has seen the Father – except Jesus Christ 1 John 4:12      No one has seen God at any time If your understanding is correct, how would we know in other instances whether Jesus was talking only to those who were hearing His voice or for all mankind. For example: Mat 5:21-26 He said to not murder or to hate Mat 5:27-30 He said to not commit adultery or to lust How would we know if He was talking to just those who heard His voice or to all mankind? I know that is a silly question, He obviously is talking to all. But how would we know that He was talking to all mankind in Matthew but in John 5:37 He was only talking to those at that time? And why would Christ have to declare (reveal) the Father if He was known?
  • metzeld
    Hi Again Mat August 29, 2017 Part 2 You put a lot of weight in the phrase, “No one believed whom He sent”. Actually, that statement is as true today as the day it was spoken. Obviously some few (very few) did believe when it was spoken, but most did not believe back then and the same is true today.
  • metzeld
    Hi Again Mat, August 29, 2017 Part 1 You wrote that, “You do not see the difficulty saying that the Father and the Son have been Father and Son from eternity”. The question is not whether you see a difficulty or not, the question is whether it is true or not. Your opinion or my opinion does not count. The fact is the Bible says that there are two (2) eternal beings and that have existed from eternity. It does not define the relationship between the two (2) beings before Christ came to earth as a human. Some believe as you do and others believe that they were equal in all aspects, but it is not clearly spelled out. You refer to Psalm 2. I think we both can agree that this psalm is clearly prophetic. Verse 2 talks about God’s Anointed, Verse 6 talks about My King, Verse 7 talks about My Son – today I have begotten you, Verses 8 – 9 talks about the Son ruling over nations, - all of these are prophetic. It would be a stretch to say that most are prophetic and that the Son is in the past. You wrote about multiple subjects, so I have multiple responses.
  • metzeld
    Hi Again Mat, Second Part – your comment regarding John 5:37 and Hebrews 1:1 John 5:37 says that no one has heard His (The Father’s voice) at any time. To add the restriction that Christ was talking only to the Jewish audience at that time is adding a restriction that is not necessarily there. Looking closely at Hebrews 1:1, it does not specifically say that the Father spoke to the prophets before sending His Son. It says that He spoke to the fathers by the prophets. Other translations say He spoke through the prophets. How did He communicate with the prophets? He communicated in visions and dreams (Numbers 12:6 – 8). So this verse is consistent with John 5:37. I hope this helps and again I wish you well in the study of God’s Word. Regards, David Metzel
  • metzeld
    Hi Mat, Thank you for your question and comment. First Part– your question regarding Proverbs 30:4. This verse is not necessarily referring to God the Father and God the Son. It is likely that the author is asking, “Who knows – and what is his son’s name”. That is another way of asking, what man or his son have knowledge. See the United Church of God Bible Commentary, which quotes other sources, that provide alternate explanations at http://bible.ucg.org/bible-commentary/Proverbs/Confession-of-Agur/. Other translations use the word “child” or “children” instead of the word “son”. Adam Clarke’s One Volume Commentary says regarding Proverbs 30:4, “it may be so (that this verse refers to God the Father and God the Son), but who would venture to rest the proof of that most glorious doctrine on such a text, to say nothing of the obscure author.” He goes on and says to be very careful with the scriptures. So this verse does not show that the Father Son relationship existed before Christ was begotten as a human. I hope this helps and I wish you well in the study of God’s Word. Regards, David Metzel
  • metzeld
    Theresa, Thank you for your question. Tithing can be difficult for some, but it comes down to a matter of priorities and faith. We need to understand what God would have us do and then go forward in faith by doing what He instructs. In Mal 3:10 God promises to bless those who tithe. This is referring to the first tithe, but all the tithes are holy to God (Lev 27:30). Many people have thought that they could not afford to tithe and are pleasantly surprised at the results when they do tithe. We may not understand on paper how it will work out, but God does bless those who serve Him. You can receive more information on tithing, instructions, and applications at ucg.org. Regards, David Metzel