Good Afternoon. Something doesn't make sense to me. In scripture, the one day for a year principle is used in scripture several times during the Old Testament and even in the New Testament. If you desire, I can even demonstrate scriptures to show it. Overall, in Revelation 11, instead of operating on the one day for a year principle, we exclude it and deem the events in 3 and half years. Overall, there is still a lot to figure out in this text but I am just trying to understand, what reasons are we justifying the use of declaring the events in 3 and a half years?