What does the Bible say about same-sex marriages?

How does the Bible define marriage?


Answer:

Jesus left no doubt about His mind on the subject of marriage in His statements in Matthew:19:4-6: "Have you not read that He who made them at the beginning ‘made them male and female,' and said, ‘For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh'? So then, they are no longer two but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let not man separate."

Homosexuality is an explosively controversial subject in our present society, but not a new issue for the Church of God. It confronted the early New Testament Church. Note the following from 1 Corinthians:6:9-10: "Do you not know that the unrighteous and the wrongdoers will not inherit or have any share in the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived (misled); neither the impure and immoral, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor those who participate in homosexuality...will inherit or have any share in the kingdom of God" (Amplified Bible).

Based upon the biblical instruction, the United Church of God believes homosexual behavior to be both unnatural and sin (Romans:1:26-27). The Scriptures are plain on the subject.

What of people who practiced homosexuality in the past? Here is what follows the above quote: "And such were some of you. But you were washed, but you were sanctified, but you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus and by the Spirit of our God" (1 Corinthians:6:11). Members of the Church of God in Corinth were guilty of some or all of the sins listed—including homosexuality—but later converted and turned from their sins. Following the scriptural example, the United Church of God graciously welcomes into our fellowship all people who repent of their sins—any sins. But we neither practice nor recognize same-sex "unions" or marriages.

For more information, please read our booklet Marriage and Family: The Missing Dimension .


bbrown29434

bbrown29434's picture

Wow that is interesting, the scripture did not match up with the narrative. " neither the impure and immoral, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor those who participate in homosexuality...will inherit or have any share in the kingdom of God" is what he wrote but he cited this being from 1st Corinthians Chapter 6 which says
"Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind,
10
Nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall inherit the kingdom of God." I looked up some of these words, fornicators refers to sex before marriage, which is what the rest of the passage focuses on. Effeminate means a male who acts like a female, I don't know the context at that time but it could be anything from being flamboyant to taking up sewing and not providing for the family. Covetous is people who really want something that isn't theirs and revilers are people who use abusive language or scold people.

The person who wrote this also said "Based upon the biblical instruction, the United Church of God believes homosexual behavior to be both unnatural and sin (Romans 1:26-27). The Scriptures are plain on the subject." it does say those who believe in idols God gave up to Vile affections" women did change the natural use into that which is against nature" possibly stopped marrying, stopped having kids, stopped having sex. "And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet."
That was separated by a ;(semi-colon) so the sentences can stand alone. And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another. Grammar suggests the lust was between man and woman. men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet. Working that which is unseemly? That does not clearly say homosexual behavior is unnatural and a sin unless you really want it to.

In the last paragraph he says again the people from Corinthians were guilty of homosexuality, but that is not what the verse said.

The bible says to leave the judging to god. I like that.




Steven Britt

Steven Britt's picture

Where did you look these words up? I generally use Strong's via BlueLetterBible, and when I looked them up it didn't seem to fit with what you've said. This is what Strong's says for fornicators in 1 Corinthians 6:9 :

1) a man who prostitutes his body to another's lust for hire
2) a male prostitute
3) a man who indulges in unlawful sexual intercourse, a fornicator

and here is what Strong's says for effeminate:

1) soft, soft to the touch
2) metaph. in a bad sense
a) effeminate
1) of a catamite
2) of a boy kept for homosexual relations with a man
3) of a male who submits his body to unnatural lewdness
4) of a male prostitute

If you have a source that argues otherwise, then I'd be interested to read it (comments don't allow links, but the name should suffice), but many translations agree that homosexuality was intended. Given that homosexuality was explicitly outlawed elsewhere in the bible (such as Leviticus 18:22), it really seems like a moot point anyway since there will be no sin of any kind in God's kingdom.



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