Where in the Bible does it say that Jesus was God in the flesh while on earth?

Where's the scriptural proof?


Answer:

The apostle John introduces His Gospel with this statement: "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God" (John 1:1). The Bible later explains that "the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth" (verse 14, emphasis added). That is, the Word became Jesus Christ. Please see verse 17 in context.

Later, in his general epistle, the apostle John stated: "We announce to you what was from the beginning, what we have heard, what we have seen with our eyes, what we beheld, and what our hands touched, as regards the Word of Life. And the Life was revealed, and we have seen, and we bear witness, and we announce to you the everlasting Life which was with the Father, and was revealed to us" (1 John 1:1-2, Green's Literal Translation).

While still in the human flesh Jesus said, "I am the resurrection and the life" (John 11:25). He also said that He was the "I AM" of the Bible (John 8:57-58; Exodus 3:14-15). Hebrews 1:8-9 refers to both Jesus and the Father as God. Matthew wrote before His birth that Jesus would be called "God with us" (Matthew 1:23). Clearly Jesus was divine, God in the flesh.

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Posted September 21, 1995
Posted January 31, 2005

Cameron Forbes

Cameron Forbes's picture

THE ONLY BEGOTTEN – “MONOGENES”

In the bible you have many persons called the sons of GOD. Adam was the son of God by creation, as are the angels called the sons of God. The bible tells us that all humanity in a sense are the offspring of God. Christians are the sons and daughters of God. But the bible declares repeatedly that Jesus Christ is the "only begotten" Son of God. This shows that Jesus is the Son of GOD, in a manner no other person can be. It actually shows that he is OF the substance of GOD, and truly Divine; Because the term "only begotten" shows that Christ is not a son by title, or a son by creation, but is truly the filial Son of GOD. What amazes me today is that many people, on both side of the aisle are attacking the "begottenness" of Christ. Some who deny the divinity of Christ attack it, and some who uphold the divinity of Christ attack it! I tell you friends the "Begotteness" of Christ is the only doctrine that ensures that Christ is divine by substance and nature! Why would people attack the cornerstone of Christianity? The very doctrine that the church is built upon? Even some bibles today are removing the word "Begotten" from their pages. What I want us to do today is to investigate the begottenness of Jesus Christ, and understand the truth for ourselves. and to do this we must first look at the phrase "Only Begotten"

The term ‘only begotten’ in the New Testament is translated from the Greek word Monogenes (Srong’s – 3439). Those who promote the doctrine that denies the literal sonship of Jesus Christ (1st John 2:22) tell us that ‘monogenes’ only means ‘unique’. Who is correct? Let us investigate and see who bares the weight of evidence..

Monogenes is from the greek words ‘monos’ and ‘genos’. The Strong’s Concordance defines it as “only-born”; but let’s investigate a little deeper

The first article of Monogenes is 3441 monos mon'-os which is defined as: remaining, i.e. sole or single; by implication, mere:--alone, only.

The Second article is 1085 genov genos ghen’-os which means an offspring or kind. It is translated ‘Born’ in Acts 18:22 and 18:24. It is translated ‘offspring’ in Acts 17:28.




Cameron Forbes

Cameron Forbes's picture

In the New Testament, and in the writings of Ante-Nicene Christians, the term Monogenes takes the more stable denotation of its root ‘ginomai’ (1096).{which is defined as; to cause to be ("gen"-erate or to be born)}, and thus is reckoned as ‘only begotten’.

And what is the specific meaning of monogenes in the New Testament? It is used only in reference to sons or daughters, in view of the literal relationship that exists between parent and offspring. It is used repeatedly by Christian writers who lived closest to the age of the Apostles to denote the filial relationship between God and Christ. And it is the cornerstone for the pre-temporal generation of the Son from the Father doctrine, which was held universally among Christians prior to 400 AD (Modalists being exempted) and was held almost universally until the last two hundred years.

Now if ‘monogenes’ simply means ‘unique’ as the propagators of the antichrist doctrine declares, then we should find it used in this manner in scripture, but it is not. Please notice that every time ‘monogenes’ is used it is specifically points to the ‘only born’ child of a person. In the following passages I have underlined where the term "monogenes" appears.

Luke 7:12 Now when he came nigh to the gate of the city, behold, there was a dead man carried out, the only son of his mother, and she was a widow: and much people of the city was with her.

Luke 8:42 For he had one only daughter, about twelve years of age, and she lay a dying. But as he went the people thronged him.

1John 4:9 In this was manifested the love of God toward us, because that God sent his only begotten Son into the world, that we might live through him. Also see John 1:14, John 1:18, John 3:16, John 3:18, Hebrews 11:17

Will you ask: “And what of Hebrews 11:17, If monogenes means only begotten, then of whom was Ishmael sprung?” Truly Isaac and Ishmael were both begotten, but only Isaac was the Son of the promise; and for this reason Paul added, “In Isaac thy seed be called”. For an example, if I say, “This is my only born child that lives with me”, you would not think I have lied, if I afterward would tell you his brother lived in a far country. Thus the question is not was Isaac begotten, but in what since was he ‘only’, and it is hence: he is the lone child of the promise.



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