Did Jesus Fulfill His Prophecy of How Long He Would Be Entombed?



Jesus Christ plainly said He would be entombed for three days and three nights. Can this be reconciled with a "Good Friday" crucifixion and burial and an "Easter Sunday" resurrection, which allows for barely a day and a half in the tomb? Or do the Gospels spell out a solution that fits perfectly with what Jesus foretold?

Rolling stone tomb
Jesus Christ's body was likely placed in a rolling-stone tomb similar to this one located in Galilee.

Source: Scott Ashley

In Matthew:12:38, some of the scribes and Pharisees asked Jesus for a sign to prove He was the Messiah. "Teacher, we want to see a miraculous sign from you," they told Him (New International Version).

Jesus responded that the only sign He would give was that of the prophet Jonah: "For as Jonah was three days and three nights in the belly of a huge fish, so the Son of Man will be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth" (Matthew:12:40, NIV).

But how can we fit "three days and three nights" between a Friday afternoon crucifixion and entombment just before sundown and a Sunday morning resurrection at sunrise? This traditional view allows for Jesus to have been in the tomb for only a day and a half—or half the time Jesus foretold!

Traditional view doesn't fit

Some believe that Christ's statement that He would be "three days and three nights in the heart of the earth" does not require a literal span of 72 hours. They reason that any part of a day can be reckoned as a whole day.

Thus, since Jesus died in the afternoon and was entombed just before sunset, they think the closing few minutes of that Friday constituted the first day, Friday night was the first night, Saturday was the second day, Saturday night was the second night, and a few minutes at dawn on Sunday morning made up the third day.

But where, then, is the third night? Even if a few minutes of daylight late on Friday and another few on Sunday morning constitute "days," this interpretation fails to explain how only two nights—Friday night and Saturday night—can somehow be the three nights of which Jesus spoke.

In fact, Scripture is plain that Jesus had already risen before Mary Magdalene came to the tomb early Sunday morning, arriving "while it was still dark" (John:20:1-2). So in reality, no parts of Sunday could be counted as a day, as Jesus was already resurrected well before the break of dawn.

Jonah:1:17, to which Jesus referred, states specifically that "Jonah was in the belly of the fish three days and three nights." We have no biblical basis for thinking that Jesus meant only two nights and one day, plus part of another day.

If Jesus were in the tomb only from late Friday afternoon to early Sunday morning, then the sign He gave that He was the prophesied Messiah was not fulfilled.

So which is it? Is something wrong with Christ's words, or is something wrong with the traditional view of when and how long He was in the tomb?

Let's carefully examine the details from the Gospels. When we do, we uncover the real story of how Jesus' words were fulfilled precisely.

Two Sabbaths mentioned

Notice the sequence of events outlined in Luke 23. Jesus' moment of death, as well as His hasty burial because of the oncoming Sabbath that began at sundown, is narrated in Luke:23:46-53. Luke:23:54 then states, "That day was the Preparation, and the Sabbath drew near."

In Jewish society of that time, heavy cooking and housecleaning were done on the day before a Sabbath in preparation for it. Thus the day before the Sabbath came to be called "the preparation day" or simply "the preparation." The biblical Sabbath falls on Saturday, the seventh day of the week. According to Bible reckoning, days begin at sunset (Leviticus:23:32; compare Genesis:1:5, Genesis:1:8, Genesis:1:13), so all weekly Sabbaths start Friday evening at sundown.

Based on these facts, many people have assumed that it is the weekly Sabbath mentioned here, and that Jesus was therefore crucified on a Friday. But two types of "Sabbaths" are mentioned in the Scriptures—the regular weekly Sabbath day, which fell on the seventh day of the week, and seven annual Holy Days (listed in Leviticus 23), Sabbaths that could—and usually did—fall on days of the week other than the regular weekly Sabbath day.

Was the day after Jesus was crucified a weekly Sabbath, or one of these annual Holy Days?

John:19:31 clearly states that this approaching Sabbath "was a high day." This term does not refer to the weekly Sabbath (Friday sunset to Saturday sunset), but in this context to the first day of Unleavened Bread, one of God's annual Holy Days (Exodus:12:16-17; Leviticus:23:6-7). A number of Bible commentaries, encyclopedias and dictionaries will confirm that John is not referring to the weekly Sabbath here, but rather to one of the annual Sabbaths.

According to the biblical evidence, in that year this high-day Sabbath fell on a Thursday (meaning it began on Wednesday night at sunset). This becomes especially clear from details in the Gospel accounts showing us that two separate Sabbath days are mentioned.

Luke:23:55-56 tells us that the women, after seeing Christ's body being laid in the tomb just before sundown, "returned and prepared spices and fragrant oils" for the final preparation of the body.

They would not have done such work on a Sabbath day, weekly or annual, since it would have been considered a Sabbath violation. This is verified by Mark's account, which states, "Now when the Sabbath was past, Mary Magdalene, Mary the mother of James, and Salome bought spices [which they could not have purchased on a Sabbath day], that they might come and anoint Him" (Mark:16:1).

The women had to wait until this Sabbath was over before they could buy and prepare the spices to be used for anointing Jesus' body. Then, Luke:23:56 tells us that, after purchasing and preparing the spices and oils on Friday, "they rested on the Sabbath according to the commandment"—which means they had to have acquired the spices before that Sabbath on which they rested. This second Sabbath mentioned in the Gospel accounts is the regular weekly Sabbath, observed from Friday sunset to Saturday sunset.

By comparing details in both Gospels— where Mark tells us the women bought spices after the Sabbath and Luke relates that they prepared the spices before resting on the Sabbath—we can clearly see that two different Sabbaths are being discussed here.

The original Greek of Matthew:28:1 even tells us the women went to the tomb "after the Sabbaths" (plural), as some Bible translations show.

The first, as John:19:31 tells us, was a "high day"—the first day of the Feast of Unleavened Bread—which in this year fell on a Thursday. The second was the weekly seventh-day Sabbath. (To see these events spelled out day by day, see "The Chronology of Jesus Christ's Crucifixion and Resurrection ".)

Sign of the Messiah

After the women rested on the regular weekly Sabbath, they went to Jesus' tomb early on the first day of the week (Sunday), "while it was still dark" (John:20:1), and found that He had already been resurrected (Matthew:28:1-6; Mark:16:2-6; Luke:24:1-3). Jesus was not resurrected at sunrise on Sunday morning. When Mary Magdalene arrived "while it was still dark," she found the stone rolled away and the tomb already empty!

When we consider the details in all four Gospel accounts, the picture is clear. Jesus was crucified and entombed late on Wednesday afternoon, just before a Sabbath began at sunset. However, that was a high-day Sabbath, lasting from Wednesday sunset to Thursday sunset that week, rather than the regular weekly Sabbath that lasted from Friday sunset to Saturday sunset.

Since Jesus was entombed in the late afternoon just before sundown, according to His own words He would have been resurrected at around the same time three days and nights later. He remained in the tomb from Wednesday at sunset until Saturday at sunset, when He rose from the dead. While no one witnessed His resurrection (which took place inside a sealed tomb), to fit His words and the biblical evidence it had to have happened three days and three nights later, near sunset on Saturday.

This time line perfectly accommodates three full nights (Wednesday night, Thursday night and Friday night) and three full daylight periods (Thursday, Friday and Saturday). This is the only time that fits Jesus' own prophecy of how long He would be in the tomb. And, as we have seen, it fits perfectly with all the details recorded in the Gospels.

We can be assured that the entombment period Jesus gave as proof He was the Messiah was exactly the duration He foretold. Because most people do not understand the biblical Holy Days Jesus Christ and His followers kept, they fail to understand the chronological details so accurately preserved for us in the Gospels.


Jacob Hitsman

Jacob Hitsman's picture

Thanks for making this clear Scott. I do love all my brothers and sisters following Christ and am very thankful to God that you take the time to feed the flock. Praise and Glory be giving to the living Christ. Amen




Lily

Lily's picture

If we didn't teach errors, many people might believe and come into the truth. We have long taught some things that are not truly scriptural. We have been deceived, not having fully proven those things. We have ignored some scriptures carelessly, or kept our own tradition {the teachings of one man}.

For example, the bible clearly says in Luke:24:1 and 21 that the FIRST day of the week... was the THIRD day... since the death and burial of Jesus Christ! Jesus did not refute that statement!

This scripture is continually ignored however, possibly because we want to give extra credence to the Sabbath, as if it needs that. Our reason for worshipping on the Sabbath has nothing to do with what day Jesus rose from the dead! We keep the Sabbath because it is a commandment from God that is still binding.

Concerning Easter, there is no commandment to honor Jesus' resurrection. Rather, we are told by Jesus Himself to remember his sacrifice and death for our sins every Passover till He comes. So the point is Easter is pagan, false worship, as is Christmas, and has nothing to do with Jesus. If Easter was changed to Saturday it would still be WRONG!!!




Lily

Lily's picture

The fact that no one witnessed the resurrection of Jesus because it took place inside a sealed tomb is not relevant. All that is relevant and required is that witnesses saw Jesus alive on the THIRD day, as He said. He never said anyone would see Him rise up. The scriptures prove this, and also prove that it did not have to be an exact period of 72 hrs. If it were exactly a period of 72 hrs then Jesus would have risen on the 4th day!

Mark:10:34, Acts:10:40, Luke:24:46, 1 Cor:15:4, Matt:16:21, Matt:17:23, Matt:20:19, Mark:9:31, Mark:10:34, Luke:9:22, Luke:13:32, Luke:18:33, Luke:24:7, Luke:24:21




Lily

Lily's picture

To clarify and explain my previous comment...

The concept of a full 3 days and a full 3 nights is not logical. A period of 72 hrs equals a full 3 days, but if Jesus rose AFTER 72 hrs, AFTER a full 3 days, then He would have risen at the start of the 4th day. You see, logically it would no longer be the third day if a full 72 hrs had passed.

He had to rise on or during the third day as He said, before the completion of 72 hours. The many scriptures I listed suggest He did indeed rise on the THIRD day, and He was indeed seen on the THIRD day as stated in Luke:24:21, proving He was the Messiah and fulfilling His prophecy concerning Himself.

That day was SUNDAY as Luke:24:1 and 21 tells us, as well as Mark:16:9 which states "Now when He rose EARLY ON THE FIRST DAY OF THE WEEK, He appeared first to Mary Magdalene..."




Ivan Veller

Ivan Veller's picture

Hello Lily,

In regards to Luke:24:1: "When] the women then went to Jesus' tomb early on the first day of the week (Sunday), while it was still dark (John:20:1), [they] found that He had already been resurrected (Matthew:28:1-6; Mark:16:2-6; Luke:24:1-3; John:20:1)…

'[In regards to] Mark:16:9… there is no punctuation indicated in the original Greek. Therefore, to be in harmony with the material presented in the other Gospels, a better translation would be: ‘Now having risen, early the first day of the week He appeared first to Mary Magdalene….’ These verses are not saying that Jesus rose early on Sunday morning, but that He appeared on Sunday morning to Mary Magdalene, having risen some time earlier” (Berg 2003, “Does Easter Really Commemorate Jesus Christ's Resurrection?”): http://www.ucg.org/holidays-and-holy-days/does-easter-really-commemorate...




Norbert Z

Norbert Z's picture

I agree with Ivan on this.

There is one thing that Lily mentions that is rather interesting.

"This scripture is continually ignored however, possibly because we want to give extra credence to the Sabbath, as if it needs that. Our reason for worshipping on the Sabbath has nothing to do with what day Jesus rose from the dead!"

It maybe only be interesting to me but:

The reason why numerous people from mainstream Christianity oppose a wed-sat timing is because it removes their reason and justification for celebrating not only Easter Sunday. But also a fri-sun timeline on the other hand gives them extra credence and a reason for worshipping on every Sunday because Jesus rose from the dead. They state so themselves.

Frankly I've never heard about the possibility that the resurrection adds extra credence to the weekly Sabbath until it's mentioned here in the comments. In my view to use that association is nothing more than pulling rabbits out of a hat.




Jake

Jake's picture

Greetings Lily,

"the bible clearly says in Luke:24:1 and 21 that the FIRST day of the week... was the THIRD day... since the death and burial of Jesus Christ!"
Is it a certainty, does it "clearly" say, that these things are only referring to "since the death and burial"? Is there a false assumption being added to this verse?

"The fact that no one witnessed the resurrection of Jesus..."
Does prefacing this statement with the word "fact" make it the truth? Does that mean that the ones who said to the women at the sepulchre "He is not here, but is risen" could not have been witnesses?

"The concept of a full 3 days and a full 3 nights is not logical."
Isn't the only way this "concept" would be "not logical" is if the quoted comments are accepted as facts? Didn't He say three days and three nights is the only sign?

"He had to rise on or during the third day as He said, before the completion of 72 hours." Where is it shown that "during" or "before the completion" is "as He said"? again, didn't He say three days and three nights is the only sign?

"...which states "Now when He rose"...", is that how this verse reads? Do other valid translations show the error here?

Shalav,
Jake




Lily

Lily's picture

Jake-

In answer to your first question, YES. It does clearly say this. It is important to read the whole chapter in CONTEXT. Taking parts of God's word out of context is detrimental to true understanding.

As to your second question, of course, God the Father and the angels witnessed the resurrection of Jesus. I was obviously referring to HUMANS, to whom Jesus gave the sign.

Pertaining to your third and fourth questions... Jesus said He would rise "the third day". If a full 72 hrs passes that is obviously the end of 3 days and 3 nights and the beginning of a 4th. He had to have risen between the time frame He gave. He rose on the third day as He said, which does not in any way change the fact that he was in the grave 3 days and 3 nights. Humans have added the concept of "FULL" days and nights.

As per your last question, here are some examples of other translations of Mark:16:9....

KJ- "Now when Jesus was risen early the first day of the week..."

NKJ- "Now when He rose early on the first day of the week..."

NLT- "After Jesus rose from the dead early on Sunday morning..."

LB- "It was early on Sunday morning when Jesus came back to life..."

Continued....




Lily

Lily's picture

Bible translations of Mark:16:9 continued...

PME- "When Jesus rose early on that first day of the week..."

RSV- "Now when He rose early on the first day of the week..."

NIV- "When Jesus rose early on the first day of the week..."

JB- "Having risen in the morning on the first day of the week..."

NEB- "When He had risen from the dead early on Sunday morning..."

Lily




Jake

Jake's picture

Greetings Lily,

Yes, it is important to read any of the scriptures in context, isn't it? Also, isn't it important to make sure in our studies that we allow scripture to agree with, to interpret, other scripture?
Following your instructions, we (re)read Luke 24 in its entirety and could not find any place that "clearly states" "...since the death and burial of Jesus Christ!" Would you please let us know where in this chapter you're referring when you say this? Could there be more information in several places in the "whole chapter" that, when matched up with other scripture, gives a clear understanding about what these men are really talking about when they say "...today is the third day since these things were done."
"The fact that no one witnessed the resurrection of Jesus..."
According to instructions given through scripture, what is required before a witness can be accepted as truth? In Luke 24, couldn't the words of the two men "He is not here, but has risen. Remember how He spoke to you... The Son of Man must be delivered into the hands of sinful men and be crucified, and the third day rise again?", qualify as a witness? If not, then why are there two?

TBC

Shalav,
Jake




Jake

Jake's picture

Greetings Lily,

Could "If we count 72 hrs this is a whole 3 days and 3 nights, in which case Jesus rising at the END of that time frame would be the start of a 4th day.", be very close to what did happen? In the very chapter where you have picked two verses to support the understanding that the 1st day of the week was the 3rd day in the grave, is there another verse that "clearly" states another understanding? What day was He crucified, killed and put in the grave? Did Jesus define exactly how much time is in a day and, by extension, a night? If so, then would He consider His statement of three days and three nights to be a "time frame", or would His sign be fulfilled in the way He defined a day and, by extension, a night? Does He always do precisely as He says He will do? Could it be that the time of day they put Him in the grave be the exact time He rose from the grave?

About Mark:16:9, may we discuss this more later?

Shalav,
Jake




Ivan Veller

Ivan Veller's picture

Hi Norbert,

Re: "the possibility that the resurrection adds extra credence to the weekly Sabbath"

"[T]he reaping of the [wave] sheaf" (on Saturday at dusk) "symbolizes Israel giving the firstfruits, the very best of their produce, to God, and this is exactly the symbolism that Jesus fulfilled [1 Cor:15:20-23]. Christians are also called the firstfruits of God.

'So as the weekly Sabbath was ending...God resurrected His Son...reap[ing] the best and the first of His spiritual harvest.

'One might wonder why this happened on the Sabbath. What is the significance of this being done on the Sabbath? It is the Sabbath that commemorates God as Creator" (Rightenbaugh, "Wave Sheaf," Forerunner Commentary).

"Christ's apostles and their converts...[observed the Sabbath] with a renewed emphasis on the 'new' person God is in the process of creating": http://www.ucg.org/booklet/ten-commandments/fourth-commandment-key-relat...

In the Millennial Sabbath rest "[following] Christ's return, He will bring the creation in its entirety into harmony with God": http://www.ucg.org/booklet/gods-holy-day-plan-promise-hope-all-mankind/f...




Mike Exton

Mike Exton's picture

Luke:24:13-14 (NLT)— “That same day [SUNDAY] two of Jesus’ followers were walking to the village of Emmaus, seven miles from Jerusalem. As they walked along they were talking…”

Luke:24:20-21 (NLT)— “…But our leading priests and other religious leaders handed Him over to be CONDEMNED TO DEATH, AND THEY CRUCIFIED HIM…. THIS [THE CONDEMNING AND CRUCIFYING OF JESUS] ALL HAPPENED THREE DAYS AGO [THURSDAY!!!].”

But how do other translations render Luke:24:20-21? Do they also clearly state that Jesus was crucified on a THURSDAY?

KJ — “...CONDEMNED to death... CRUCIFIED him... today is the THIRD day since THESE things were done.”

PME — “...HANDED HIM OVER FOR EXECUTION, and had him CRUCIFIED... it’s THREE days since all THIS happened...”

RSV — “...CONDEMNED to death, and CRUCIFIED him... it is now the THIRD day since THIS happened.”

NIV — “...handed him over to be SENTENCED to death, and they CRUCIFIED him... it is the THIRD day since all THIS took place.”

So, as you can plainly see, other translations give the same meaning as the NLT. They ALL show beyond any doubt whatsoever that Jesus was crucified three days prior to Sunday—THURSDAY! And resurrected on Sunday (Mark:16:9).




Mike Exton

Mike Exton's picture

Mark:16:9 emphatically states that Jesus Christ was resurrected on a Sunday:

KJ- "Now when Jesus was risen early the first day of the week..."

NKJ- "Now when He rose early on the first day of the week..."

NLT- "After Jesus rose from the dead early on Sunday morning..."

LB- "It was early on Sunday morning when Jesus came back to life..."

PME- "When Jesus rose early on that first day of the week..."

RSV- "Now when He rose early on the first day of the week..."

NIV- "When Jesus rose early on the first day of the week..."

JB- "Having risen in the morning on the first day of the week..."

NEB- "When He had risen from the dead early on Sunday morning..."

So as you can plainly see, Jesus was resurrected on a SUNDAY. Please do not reject this simple truth. Remember what God tells us in Hosea:4:6—“...Because you have rejected knowledge, I also will reject you...”

And don't forget, as Luke:24:20-21 clearly points out, Christ was crucified on a THURSDAY.




Norbert Z

Norbert Z's picture

@ Mike Exton, What Luke:24:20 clearly points out is a good example of translator bias going on with the original manuscripts. It occurs with other verses as well.

The New Berkeley Version in Modern English-- Gerrit Verkugl
"Moreover, three days have already passed, since all these events occurred."

The Syriac New Testament Translated Into English From The Peshitto Version -- James Murdock
"...and lo, three days have passed since all these things have occurred."

When a person understands that during Christ's time, the Bible supports the knowledge that those people talked of days inclusively rather than exclusively as we do now. Seems to me, there are two basic views of Luke:24:20 and one of them is translator bias.

The argument for a Wed crucifixion is solid and people will make conclusions according to their own bias too.

@ Ivan, Imo a person would have to do too many mental cartwheels to land at the conclusion that somehow the resurrection of Jesus adds credence to the weekly Sabbath. I believe that follows a similar kind of reasoning that somehow Sunday is now the authoritative day of worship for Christians. Nether of them have much to stand on in my view.




Lily

Lily's picture

To Mike Exton-

Thank you for walking us through what God is telling us really happened, and when, the year Jesus was crucified!




Mike Exton

Mike Exton's picture

To Norbert Z,

So you’re saying that the translators of the KJV, NKJV, RSV, NIV, PME, NLT, GNT, ASV, CEB, CJB, RHE, GW, HNV, CSB, LEB, NAS, NCV, NIRV, NRS, DBY, MSG, WBT, TMB, TNIV, WNT, WEB, WYC, YLT, and just about every other translator in the entire world translated Luke:24:20-21 the way they did because they were biased towards a THURSDAY crucifixion???!!!

As I stated in an earlier comment, please do not forget what God tells in Hosea:4:6 (NKJV): “…Because you have rejected knowledge, I also will reject you…” Rejecting what God clearly says in His Word is not something that should be taken lightly.




Norbert Z

Norbert Z's picture

Mike Exton, I stated that translator bias exists and provided evidence as proof; that people read different things into other peoples words. Similar to suggesting my comment could imply that the translators were specifically biased towards a Thursday crucifixion.

I assume you understand the difference between inclusive and exclusive passage of days. And what that does with a verse like Luke:24:21.

Besides if the precedent of having a majority view is always the correct and valid one, then the verses quoting Jesus' statement about the sign of Jonah should be blotted out from the Bible. Seeing most people believe Easter provides a valid timeline.

People trying figure out where to stand on the question of "How Long He Would Be Entombed?", need to examine all arguments made for those events. Not only here on the UCG website, but investigate plenty of others with an opposing argument. Then come to their own conclusion.

The way I see it, Hosea:4:6 is NOT relevant to this discussion, there's plenty of knowledge freely available online. However 1 Tim:1:7 is appropriate, "desiring to be teachers of the law, understanding neither what they say nor the things which they affirm"




Ivan Veller

Ivan Veller's picture

@ Mike Exton,

“‘[He was] condemned to death and crucified’” (Luke:24:21b NKJV). “‘But [1] we were hoping [2] that he was [3] the one who was going [4] to redeem Israel. But in addition [5] to all these things, this is the third day [since] these things took place’” (Luke:24:19-21 LEB 2010).

[1] “moreover” (Biblos Interlinear: Westcott-Hort 1881); “yet” (Scripture4All Interlinear: Scrivener Textus Receptus 1894)

[2] “were hoping”—imperfect indicative active tense (WH); “expected” (TR)]

[3] “is”—present indicative (WH); “is” (TR) [the Messiah]

[4] “is about”—present participle active (WH); “one being about” (TR)

[5] Translating the word ‘alla’ (S235) can be “difficult, Luke:24:21…‘but then there is this,’ ‘in spite of all this,’ ‘too,’ ‘into the bargain,’ ‘this, at any rate, has taken place’” (Darby, “Greek Participles and Prepositions”); “Indeed” (NKJV), “And” (ERV 2008), “Besides” (HCSB 2009), “But” (LEB 2010), “Yes” (ESV 2011), “Anyway” (Voice 2012); “otherwise, on the other hand, but” (Luke:24:21, Biblos Bible Lexicon). A positive rendering breathlessly anticipates the possibility of present fulfillment. A negative one highlights hopes dashed because the days have passed.




Andlu Macar

Andlu Macar's picture

Thank you Ivan Veller. That puts it in summary as best as one can put it. People can get so hung up on one view that "scotoma" takes place and prevents the mind from seeing what is before one's eyes. Those disciples were indeed sad and forlorn for an excellent reason. I think only one as loving as our Master/kinsman Redeemer/King would take the time to address those two and their very broken hearts in order to mend them. People today can't quite understand the depth of their anguish and loss as they contemplated the past years following this young Jewish Rabbi only to see it all end so "tragically" and now, three full days having passed, totally in their eyes...




Ivan Veller

Ivan Veller's picture

@Mike Exton,
Re: “just about every other translator in the entire world”

Luke:24:21b:

• “‘three days (have passed) since all these things were done’” (Etheridge 1849, Aramaic [Eastern] Peshitta NT).
• “‘three days have passed since all these things have occurred’” (Murdock 1852, Syriac [Western] Peshitto NT)
• “‘việc xảy ra đã được ba ngày rồi’” (Vietnamese Bible 1934).
• “‘Moreover, three days have already passed, since all these events occurred’” (Verkugl 1959, New Berkeley Version in Modern English)
• “‘con tutto ciò son passati tre giorni da quando queste cose sono accadute’” (Conferenza Episcopale Italiana 1971).
• “‘Pero ya hace tres días que pasó todo eso’” (Dios Habla Hoy 1996, Sociedades Bíblicas Unidas).
• “‘Till allt detta kommer att han redan har låtit den tredje dagen gå, sedan detta skedde’” (Svenska Folkbibeln 1998, Stiftelsen Svenska Folkbibeln).
• “‘Voilà déjà trois jours que tout cela est arrivé’” (La Bible du Semeur 1999, Biblica).
• “‘já faz três dias que essas coisas aconteceram’” (Portuguese ERV 1999, World Bible Translation Center).
• “‘ya hace tres días que sucedió todo esto’” (Nueva Versión Internacional 1999, Biblica).

(continued below)




Ivan Veller

Ivan Veller's picture

(concluded)

• “‘Pero ya hace tres días’” (Traducción en Lenguaje Actual 2000, Sociedades Bíblicas Unidas).
• “‘all these things since days (have passed) three’” (Younan 2001, “Peshitta Aramaic/English Interlinear NT”).
• “‘с тех пор прошло три дня’” (Russian ERV 2007, World Bible Translation Center).
• “‘Nosotros teníamos la esperanza de que él iba a ser el libertador de Israel, pero ya han pasado tres días desde que sucedió todo esto’” (La Palabra 2010 [versiónes española y hispanoamericana], Sociedad Bíblica de España).
• “‘不但如此,而且這事成就,現在已經三天了’” (Chinese Union Version M.P. 2011 [simplified and traditional versions], Asia Bible Society)
• “‘những việc ấy đã xảy ra ba ngày rồi’” (Bản Dịch 2011, Bau Dang)
• [Footnote: “Codex does not have ‘today’”] “a.路加福音 24:21 有古抄本没有“今天” (Chinese Standard Bible 2011 [simplified and traditional versions], Asia Bible Society)
• “‘Nosotros teníamos la esperanza de que él habría de redimir a Israel. Sin embargo, ya van tres días de que todo esto pasó’” [Updated from: “‘hoy es ya el tercer día’” (Reina-Valera 1995)] (Reina Valera Contemporánea 2011, Sociedades Bíblicas Unidas).




Ivan Veller

Ivan Veller's picture

Here's our recent Beyond Today broadcast on the topic: http://www.ucg.org/beyond-today-program/doctrinal-beliefs/three-days-and...




RachelSmith

RachelSmith's picture

Intriguing conversation! I see great points in everyone's arguments. On the surface there appears a contradiction in the scriptures:

1) A full 3 nights and 3 days from Wednesday would have Jesus rising at about sunset on Saturday

yet

2) Cleopas and the other disciple, as they talk to Jesus on their way to Emmaus on a Sunday, seem to say in Luke:24:21 that it was 3 days ago (Thursday) that Jesus was crucified.

Either way, I don't see how anyone can get a Friday crucifixion out of this, so I won't even go there.

This isn't a firm assertion, but I wonder if the intended recipient(s) of the main scripture in question (both in Luke 24 and Mark 16) has something to do with this?

The scriptures give details of the last week of Jesus's life in Jewish terms, giving information about the Passover, Feast of UB, Preparation Day, and Sabbath(s). Yet, the audience of both Mark and Luke is primarily Roman and Gentile.

Is it possible that we're all correct here? That Jesus actually rose at sunset on Saturday (the last moment of the Sabbath), but that the writers explained the timing in terms with which the Roman/Gentile audience would have been more familiar?



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